This is the question an atheist asks and then goes on to say that the Bible contradicts Itself, using verses out of context as his proof. I would like to address this subject in this post. I have been writing a series of posts on claims by atheists that the Bible contradicts Itself. Upon the slightest bit of intellectual integrity one will find that the atheists are trying to latch on to the wind for their ridiculous claims, trying to disprove a God whom they claim does not exist. That very act proves that they do not have full proof that there is no God, just their desires (but that is for a different post).
Here is the “evidence” for this ridiculous claim.
5 “You shall not worship them or serve them; for I, the LORD your God, am a jealous God, visiting the iniquity of the fathers on the children, on the third and the fourth generations of those who hate Me, (Exodus 20)
20 “The person who sins will die. The son will not bear the punishment for the father’s iniquity, nor will the father bear the punishment for the son’s iniquity ; the righteousness of the righteous will be upon himself, and the wickedness of the wicked will be upon himself. (Ezekiel 18)